Could someone help explain why we get inclusion after the inequality involving norms at the end of the proof?
2026-04-08 07:38:49.1775633929
Why does $\|x\|_q\leq\|x\|_p$ imply that $\ell_p\subset\ell_q$?
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Because the proof showed that given an arbitrary element $x$ of $\ell_p$, we have that $x\in\ell_q$, which is the definition of inclusion