Why exactly isn't this solve valid

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Assume $x^2+x+1=0$ --①

Thus $x+1=-x^2$ --②

Since $x=0$ is not a root of ①, thus divide both side of ① by x to get

$x+1+\frac{1}{x}=0$,

Since ②, we have $-x^2+\frac {1}{x}=0$

Thus $x^3=1$ and thus $x=1$.

I know that the other two complex roots of $x^3$ is root for the original equation, and I know there's something wrong with the dividing part, but what exact principle did it break?

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The overall effect of your manipulations (dividing by $x$, subtracting, and multiplying by $x$) is to say $$x^2+x+1=0 \\ \implies (x-1)(x^2+x+1)=0 \\ \implies x^3-1=0 \\ \implies x^3=1$$ and there is nothing wrong with those as one-way implications.

That final equation gives has three complex roots, one of which is $x=1$. But that one is in fact not a root to the first equation. This spurious solution was introduced by the multiplication by $(x-1)$, which is $0$ when $x=1$.