In an attempt to prove that every group $G$ of order 6 is isomorphic to either $\mathbb{Z}_6$ or $S_3$, I stumbled upon one peculiar issue.
We can use Cauchy's Theorem to argue that since $|G|=3\cdot2$, $G$ must necessarily have elements of orders 1, 2, and 3. Another possibility is that there exists an element of order 6 in $G$. Now, suppose this is true, then $G$ is cyclic of order 6, which implies that $G\cong \mathbb{Z}_6$.
Alternatively, suppose that $G$ contains only elements of orders 1, 2, and 3. Then... (and here's where it appears to be the most difficult part)
There must necessarily be only two elements of order 3. For if there are more than two elements of order 3 then for some $a\in G$ s.t. $a^3=1$, $a^2=b$, where $|b|=2$ or $|b|=3$. Suppose that $b$ has order 2. Then $a^2a=1$ implies that $a^2 = a^{-1}$, thus $|b|\ne 2$. We conclude that $b$ has order 3. Then $a_1^2 = b_1$, $a_2^2=b_2$, $a_3^2=b_1$ or $a_3^2=b_2$. But this implies that $a_3=a_1$ or $a_3 = a_2$. Hence, $G$ must contain two elements of order 3.
We can now define a bijective homomorphism between $G$ and $S_3$, which implies that $G\cong S_3$.
I'm wondering, however, if there's a simpler way to prove that there must necessarily be exactly two elements of order 3 in $G$.
In the first part of the indented quote, you conclude that the inverse of an element of order 3 will itself has order 3, so order-3 elements come in pairs. So far so good. But the jump from there to "Then $a_1^2=b_1$, $a_2^2=b_2$, $a_3^2=b_1$, or $a_3^2=b_2$" is completely unjustified. In fact at this point you haven't really used the fact that $G$ has only 6 elements -- would however argument you have in mind there work as well to show that $S_4$ cannot have three different elements of order $3$ (which is manifestly untrue)? If it won't, then you need to explain how it works.
What I would say is: