This is from Real Analysis, proof of Theorem 2.25:
"Let
$\alpha$
be a real number. Then
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}1/n^\alpha$$
is convergent if
$\alpha>1$
and is divergent if
$\alpha\le1$".
This was given information in the proof for the inequality of the series written on the topic
$N\ge1$ ,$K\ge1$, and
$1<\alpha<2$. I have put little effort understanding it but still couldn't understand why this is true and how did it just came out of a thin air.I hope experts like you can explain it and if you need any information related to this inequality please let me know in comment. Thanks in advance.
The sum of a finite GP with positive terms is always less than the corresponding infinite GP. See below: $$S=1+1+\frac{1}{2^{(a-1)}}+\frac{1}{2^{2(a-1)}}+\frac{1}{2^{3(a-1)}}+...+\frac{1}{2^{(a-1)(K-1)}}$$ $$=1+\sum_{j=0}^{K-1} 2^{-(a-1) j} < 1+\frac{1}{1-\frac{1}{2^{(a-1)}}}, a>1$$