I'm just starting my first course in real analysis next week this semester. I've began reading the first chapter on real numbers and came across this issue I can't understand. I've searched around here and came across Cantor's intersection theorem and its counter-examples. I read here a little about compactness and am still bamboozled from this page in my textbook (the final paragraph):
The problem I have digesting this paragraph is that: The argument presented in the text seems to have given 'infinity' a double meaning. First, it allows it to be a 'solid state number' where m could be substituted to be it. Then it allows m+1 to let the argument run through, this would have to assume that 'infinity' is mutable and not a fixed number. Hence creating two different definitions for it. For me, it seems like if we stick to just one single definition of infinity:
If infinity is a solid number (infinitely large, but cannot be changed to be even larger), then we cannot have m+1 into the argument.
If infinity is not a solid number, then we cannot pick a natural number m for it to begin with.
So I'm thinking the infinite intersection of decreasing sequence of closed sets, should still contain a non empty set, and that set should be named $A_{\infty}$
I know I can't be right but why?
No it doesn't. Nowhere in the text does the author assume that $m=\infty$.
The author assumes, for the sake of argument, that $m$ is an element of the set $$\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty A_n$$
Then, the author proves that this is a contradiction.
In other words, the author proves the statement
$$\forall m\in\mathbb N: m\notin \bigcap_{n=1}^\infty A_n$$
That's all. There is not saying "$m$ is infinity". In the argument, we use the definition
$$x\in \bigcap_{n=1}^\infty A_n \iff \forall n\in\mathbb N: x\in A_n.$$
That's just a definition that allows us to simply construct the set we will call $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty A_n$ from now on. Using this definition, we can prove that for our particular selection of sets $A_n$, $$\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty A_n=\emptyset.$$
The argument goes (with the reason how we know each point is true written in italics):
Every statement I wrote follows logically from the previous statements, and the only time I mention $\infty$ is in writing $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty A_n$. In $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty A_n$, all the $\infty$ sign means is captured in the definition of $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty A_n$.