My maths teacher explained this to be me by way of analogy: a car driving around a perfectly circular track would be constantly changing its velocity (while the magnitude of the velocity is not changing, the direction is). Because acceleration is the rate of change of velocity, and the object is changing direction, it is said to be accelerating. This strikes me as an odd definition of acceleration, as surely it still equals $\mathrm{0 ms^{-2}}$, even if the object is changing direction. Nevermind, I thought, it's just a definition.
What is strange is that this seeming technicality actually tells us information. Because the object is accelerating, there must have been a resultant force acting on it (since $F=ma$). This is completely baffling to me — yes, the object must have been 'accelerating', but if the magnitude of that acceleration = $0\mathrm{ms^{-2}}$, it seems certain that $F$ = 0 as well. What am I missing?
ACCELEARTION IS A VECTOR QUANTITY!!!
What your Maths Teacher may have meant is that the object changing direction has different acceleration , in the sense that the magnitude of the acceleration is constant (provided no external force) ; it is only changing it's resultant direction .
In Vector form , A Vector A can be written in terms of it rectangular components :
Hence , $A = Acos\theta + Asin\theta $ , Where $\theta $ Is The angle of direction
Since the object is changing direction , at other instant , let the angle made be $\phi$
Then $A' = Acos\phi + A\sin\phi$
Clearly A is not equal to A' Although magnitude of $A = \sqrt{(Acos\theta)^2 +(Asin\theta)^2 } = A$
And magnitude of $A' = \sqrt{(Acos\phi)^2 +(Asin\phi)^2 } = A$
Both acceleration vector have the same magnitude but acts along different direction, so acceleration is changing.