Brouwer's fixed point theorem states that if a continuouos function $f$ maps a compact, convex set to itself, then $f$ has a fixed point in that set.
All these concepts are topological concepts, except convexity, which is a concept of affine spaces, since it relies on the "linear combination" of points.
So shouldn't we consider the theorem a theorem in $R^n$ euclidean analysis (or at least "affine analysis") rather than topology?
As Lee's answer/the comment addresses, one generally proves Brouwer in a more general context using something called homology which lets one not speak of convexity at all. The theorem is sometimes phrased in terms of convexity to avoid having to define these broader conditions. But the theorem has nothing to do with convexity, rigidly construed.
Let $B$ be a compact, convex subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$, let $h: B \to \mathbb{R}^n$ be a homeomorphism onto its image, and let $f: h(B) \to h(B)$ continuous. Then $(h^{-1}\circ f \circ h): B \to B$ is continuous hence by the 'analytic' Brouwer fixed point theorem, there exists some $b^*$ such that $b^* = (h^{-1}\circ f \circ h)(b^*)$. But: $$ (h^{-1} \circ f)\big(h(b^*)\big) = (h^{-1})\big(h(b^*)\big) $$ hence $$ f(b^*) = b^* $$ by injectivity of $h$. Hence we can immediately drop 'convexity' for 'homeomorphic to a convex set,' and our condition already takes on a far more topological flavor.