Why is $\forall xO(x,c), \forall xO(c,x) \therefore \forall xO(x,x)$ an invalid reasoning?
This exercise appears in P.D. Magnus. "forallX: an Introduction to Formal Logic" (p. 268, exercise D. 7).
I think to satisfy both universal quantifiers, predicate $O$ must be symmetric, so I cannot find an interpretation that makes $\forall xO(x,x)$ false. On the surface, it seems a valid reasoning (considering a non-empty universe).
What's happening here?
As computed here, let the domain be $\{0,1\}$, let $c=0$, and let $O$ be given by $\{(0,0), (0,1), (1,0)\}$, so that $\exists z\lnot O(z,z)$, namely, $z=1$.