I searched on the internet and found the derivation $$\frac{dy}{d(ax)}=\frac{1}{a}\frac{dy}{dx}\tag{1}$$ I am confused of why this is true.
I tried to do the derivation myself, but there was no progress. Here is what I did. $$y(x)=2x$$ $$\frac{dy}{dx}=2$$ So I say that $$y(2x)=4x$$ According to $(1)$ $$\frac{dy}{d(2x)}= \frac{1}{2}\frac{dy}{dx}=1$$ But how does this even make sense?
Generally, when you have something like
$$\frac{d}{d(g(x))} f(x)$$
I personally find it convenient to make a substitution of $u = g(x)$ and then rewrite $f$ as a function of $u$.
For $f(x) = 2x$, you are correct in that $f'(x) = 2$. However, in finding
$$\frac{d}{d(2x)} 2x$$
we let $u = 2x$. Then $f(x) = 2x \Leftrightarrow f(u) = u$, and thus
$$\frac{d}{d(2x)} 2x = \frac{d}{du} u = 1 = \frac{1}{2} \frac{d}{dx} 2x$$