I am studying ring homomorphism and was curious why it is defined as such.The definition I have is
Let $(R,+,*)$ and $(S,\oplus,\cdot)$ be two rings. A map $\varphi : R \to S$ is called a homomorphism if for every $a,b \in R, \varphi(a+b)= \varphi(a) \oplus \varphi(b)$ and $\varphi(a*b)=\varphi(a)\cdot\varphi(β)$
I get that since $a,b\in R$, then $a * b\in R$ as well, and that $\varphi(a),\varphi(b),\varphi(a*b)\in S$, as well as that $\varphi(a)\cdot\varphi(b)\in R$. But why does $\varphi(a*b)=\varphi(a)\cdot\varphi(b)$ though?
Thanks in advance :)
Here's a slightly different way of getting an intuition about this. Let's say we did have a bijection $\varphi:R\to S$. Then the most natural way of "mapping" the operations would be to say $s\oplus s' = \varphi(\varphi^{-1}(s)+\varphi^{-1}(s'))$ and similarly for the multiplicative structure. This can be equivalently written $r+r'=\varphi^{-1}(\varphi(r)\oplus\varphi(r'))$. Finally, this can also equivalently be written $\varphi(r+r')=\varphi(r)\oplus\varphi(r')$. This last form no longer requires assuming that $\varphi$ is a bijection.
As a historical note, quoting from the second footnote of Colin McLarty's The Uses and Abuses of the History of Topos Theory (PDF):
I suspect that the way this manifested is they wouldn't talk about a homomorphism between groups, but rather the group structure induced by a bijection via my first two equations in the case of isomorphism. For projections onto quotient groups, this just looks like considering the "same" operation only "mod $N$" (for $N$ a normal subgroup).