Why is $\int\frac{\sin (3\theta + \pi )+14}{15} \times \frac{\sin (3\theta - \pi )+14}{15}\,d\theta$ near double the area of $r=1$ with area $\pi?$

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How is $$\int\frac{\sin (3\theta + \pi )+14}{15} \times \frac{\sin (3\theta - \pi )+14}{15}\,d\theta$$ almost double the area of $r=1$ with area $\pi?$

This is the graph of the function https://www.desmos.com/calculator/6q7fprhqak

This is plugged into integral calculator This is it plugged into integral calculator

This must be a mistake. I am not sure why my integration is wrong though

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In general $$\int_{0}^{2\pi} f(\theta)\,d\theta$$ is not the area of the curve, even when $f(\theta)>0$ for all $\theta$. This is because for $\Delta\theta$, the area is estimated by a triangle, not a rectangle. In particular, you have a triangle with lengths $f(\theta),f(\theta+\Delta \theta)$ and angle $\Delta\theta$. The triangle area is thus $$\frac{1}{2}f(\theta)f(\theta+\Delta\theta)\sin \Delta\theta.$$

Turns out, $\sin\Delta x\sim \Delta x$ is good enough. Thus, to get the area bounded by $f(\theta)$, you want:

$$\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{1}2f(\theta)^2\,d\theta$$

So you get a factor of $\frac{1}{2}$, plus you want to square your function.

It's a little trickier of $f(\theta)$ is negative for some values $\theta$.

See: http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcII/PolarArea.aspx