Following the answer by @Carlo Beenakker here, $\int_{-\infty}^\infty x^{-2}\delta(1/x) dx=1$, but I failed to understand, why. Can anyone please explain it in simple terms?
2026-04-06 07:13:10.1775459590
Why is $\int_{-\infty}^\infty x^{-2}\delta(1/x) dx=1$?
60 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in INTEGRATION
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