Consider a set of L-sentences $\Sigma$ and a set of complete L-theories $T_i$ containing $\Sigma$ i.e. $\Sigma \subseteq T_i$.
Why is it that for each complete L-theory $T_i$ containing $\Sigma$ are exactly the the theories $Th(\mathcal A)$ of models of $\Sigma$?
I also want to make explicit what I believe the question is asking because I got confused after reading the answer. So I believe the question/natural language means:
If ( $T_i$ is complete & $\Sigma \subseteq T_i$) THEN ($T_i = Th(\mathcal A_i$) for some $\mathcal A \models \Sigma$)
Assume:
- $ \mathcal A $ is an L-structure in some language L
- I'm assuming $Th(\mathcal A) = \{ \sigma : \mathcal A \models \sigma \}$
- recall an L-theory is closed under provability i.e. $T \vdash \sigma \implies \sigma \in T$
Honestly my thoughts on this are very limited except that I guess completeness theorem should play a role?
$$ \Sigma \vdash \sigma \iff \forall \mathcal A \models \Sigma, \mathcal A \models \sigma$$
I'm not even sure how $Th(\mathcal A)$ relates to $T_i$. This makes it seem all the L-theories are the same when they are not the same by assumption...
If $\mathcal A\vDash\Sigma$ then $\mathrm{Th}(\mathcal A)$ clearly contains $\Sigma$ so this proves one inclusion.
For the reverse inclusion suppose we have a complete theory $T$ containing $\Sigma$, we want to show that it is of the form $\mathrm{Th}(\mathcal A)$ where $\mathcal A$ is a model of $\Sigma$. Since $T$ is complete any two models of $T$ are elementarily equivalent so they all have the same complete theory and $T=\mathrm{Th}(\mathcal A)$ where $\mathcal A$ is any model of $T$. Note that $\Sigma\subseteq T$, so $\mathcal A\vDash\Sigma$, as desired