The question is pretty straightforward, I just can't seem to figure it out. Shouldn't $\ln(\infty) =\infty$, and the function would be $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$? Is it because of that rule that says that an exponential function grows faster than the others?
I'm very confused and I'm sorry if I don't make any sense and for the lack of styling. By the way, I have to solve without using l'Hopital's rule.
Note that $\ln(x) \leq x$ for all $x>1$, and certainly, $$\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{x} = 0.$$ You also need to state that the log is positive for $x$ sufficiently large to conclude that the limit is zero.