Suppose $X_1,...,X_n$ is a random sample from a distribution having $N(\mu, \sigma^2)$. What is the conceptual difference between:
$$ \frac1{n} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \bar{X})^2$$
and
$$ \frac1{n} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \mu)^2 ?$$
And why, when multiplied by $n$ and divided by $\sigma ^2$, the first becomes a $\chi^2 (n-1)$ while the second $\chi^2 (n)$?