In solutions to the following question I am not sure why -1 being a quadratic residue implies that if $a$ is a quadratic residue then $p-a$ also is?
Any help would be much appreciated!
In solutions to the following question I am not sure why -1 being a quadratic residue implies that if $a$ is a quadratic residue then $p-a$ also is?
Any help would be much appreciated!
$a$ is a quadratic residue modulo $p$ means $$\Big(\frac{a}{p}\Big)=1.$$ Now, consider $p-a$. Then $$\Big(\frac{p-a}{p}\Big)=\Big(\frac{-a}{p}\Big)=\Big(\frac{-1}{p}\Big)\Big(\frac{a}{p}\Big)=1,$$ since we are given that $-1$ is quadratic residue modulo $p$ too.