Let $u \in \mathbb{R}^m$ and $v \in \mathbb{R}^n$ and $u,v \neq 0$. Since $u$ is an $m\times1$ matrix and $v^T$ is a $1\times n$ matrix, the product $uv^{T}$ is a $m\times n$ matrix. Then:
$$\text{rank} (uv^{T}) =1$$
Just to illustrate: pick a random vector $u$ in $\mathbb{R}^4$, and $v$ in $\mathbb{R}^5$, for example: $u= (1, 2, 3, 4),$ and $v= (1, 2, 3, 4, 5)$. The rank of the matrix $m\times n$ is $1$ which can be checked by row-reducing. Chosing arbitrary vectors $u,v \neq 0$, the rank of the product matrix mxn of $uv^{T}$ is always $1$.
Why is this?
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Remember that if $\;AB\;$ is a well defined product of matrices, it is always true that $\;\text{rank}\,AB\le\min(\text{rank}\,A,\,\text{rank}\,B)\;$.
In your case, as matrices, $\;\text{rank}\,u=\text{rank}\,v^t=1\;$ and thus we almost get the claim ("almost" unless, as vectors, these two are orthogonal)
For (counter) example
$$(1\;0)\binom 01=(0)$$
If for you the usual vector is a column one, then $\;uv^t\;$ is an $\;n\times n\;$ matrix instead of a $\;1\times1\;$ as above...but the same applies but this time there is no possibility of "orthogonality" in the way shown above.