The cross-correlation of continuous $f,g$ is:
$$(f \star g)(\tau)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f^*(t)g(t+\tau)dt$$
Why is it an integral?
Why doesn't
The cross-correlation of continuous $f,g$ is:
$$(f \star g)(\tau)=f^*(t)g(t+\tau)$$ suffice?
2026-03-31 12:12:48.1774959168
Why is the cross-correlation an integral?
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