Why is the dual of the Sobolev space $H_0^1(\Omega)$ denoted $H^{-1}(\Omega)$ ?
For a positive integer $k$, $H^k(\Omega)=W^{k,2}(\Omega)$. What is the motivation behind the $-1$ exponent?
Why is the dual of the Sobolev space $H_0^1(\Omega)$ denoted $H^{-1}(\Omega)$ ?
For a positive integer $k$, $H^k(\Omega)=W^{k,2}(\Omega)$. What is the motivation behind the $-1$ exponent?
Let $s\in \mathbb R$ and $v\in H^{-s}(\mathbb R^n)$. If $u\in H^s(\mathbb R^n)$, the map $\xi\mapsto \widehat u(\xi)\widehat v(-\xi)$ is in $L^1(\mathbb R^n)$.
Indeed, for all $\xi\in \mathbb R^n$, $\widehat u(\xi)\widehat v(-\xi)=\widehat u(\xi) (1+|\xi|^2)^{\frac s2}\widehat v(-\xi)(1+|\xi|^2)^{-\frac s2}$, and the RHS is the product of two map of $L^2(\mathbb R^n)$. By Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, we have
$$\left|\int_{\mathbb R^n}\widehat u(\xi)\widehat v(-\xi)d\xi\right|\leq \lVert u\rVert_{H^s(\mathbb R^n)} \lVert v\rVert_{H^{-s}(\mathbb R^n)}.$$ Therefore, if $v\in H^{-s}(\mathbb R^n)$, the map $L_v$ defined by \begin{equation} u\in H^s(\mathbb R^n)\mapsto L_v(u)=(2\pi)^{-n}\int_{\mathbb R^n}\widehat u(\xi)\widehat v(-\xi)d\xi =\int_{\mathbb R^n}\widehat u(\xi)\overline{\mathcal F}v(\xi)d\xi \end{equation} is a continuous linear functional on $H^s(\mathbb R^n)$ (hence an element of $(H^s(\mathbb R^n))'$ and $\lVert L_v\rVert _{(H^s(\mathbb R^n))'}\leq (2\pi)^{-n}\lVert v\rVert_{H^{-s}(\mathbb R^n)}$. We can define $L\colon H^{-s}(\mathbb R^n)\to (H^s(\mathbb R^n))'$ by $L(v)=L_v$.
Sketch of proof:
When $\Omega$ is a arbitrary open subset of $\mathbb R^n$ we have to use charts (and $\Omega$ needs to be regular enough, since the Sobolev of integer order, defined in a classical way may be not equal to the corresponding one, even if $\Omega$ is bounded), but at least it shows the idea.