We know that when $n$ is odd, $\operatorname{O}_n(\mathbb R) \simeq \operatorname{SO}_n (\mathbb R) \times \mathbb Z_2$.
However, this seems not true when $n$ is even. But I have no idea how to prove something is not a direct product.
I have tried to verify some basic properties of direct product. For example, $\operatorname{SO}_n(\mathbb R)$ is a normal subgroup of $\operatorname{O}_n(\mathbb R)$, whenever $n$ is odd or even. But they are not helpful.
So, is this statement true and how to prove it?
Thank you!
Look at the centers: the center of $\operatorname{O}(n)$ is $\pm \operatorname{Id}$. When $n$ is even, this is also the center of $\operatorname{SO}(n)$. Therefore for even $n$ the center of $\operatorname{SO}(n) \times \mathbb Z_2$ is $\{\pm \operatorname{Id} \} \times \mathbb Z_2$, which is bigger than the center of $\operatorname{O}(n)$.
EDIT: This works for $n \ge 3$. For $n=2$, $\operatorname{O}(2)$ is non-abelian while $\operatorname{SO}(2) \times \mathbb Z_2$ is.