If $\mathbb{K}$ is a field, and we consider the module $\mathbb{K}[x,y]$ over itself, I've seen others give the example that the ideal generated by $\langle x, y \rangle$ is not a free module to demonstrate that a submodule of a free module need not be free. However, I don't understand why.
From the definition of a free module, a module is free if it has a linearly independent basis. Since $x,y$ have no relations between them, they seem to form a linearly independent $\mathbb{K}[x,y]-$basis for the ideal. So what am I missing here? Why is this submodule not free?
Similarly, I've seen the example that $\mathbb{Z}_6$ is a free module over itself but apparently $2\mathbb{Z}_6$ is not free for some reason. Again, this modules is generated by $\langle 2\rangle$ so by definition it has to be free, right? I'm confused.
Any explanation would be appreciated, thank you!
They are not independent over $\mathbb{K}[x,y]$, which is the ring in question: using boldface for the module elements, you have $y\mathbf{x} -x\mathbf{y}=\mathbf{0}$, even though neither $x$ nor $y$ are zero. It is not an independent set. So it is not true that "there are no relations between them."
They do span a free $\mathbb{K}$-module, but that isn't what you are considering.
The subgroup $\langle2\rangle$ of the integers modulo $6$ is not free since $3\mathbf{2}=\mathbf{0}$, even though the scalar $3$ is not zero. It is not an independent set. You can also verify it does not satisfy the universal property of free modules: you cannot extend the map $\{2\}\to \mathbb{Z}_6$ that sends $2$ to $1$ to a $\mathbb{Z}_6$-module homomorphism $\langle 2\rangle\to \mathbb{Z}_6$.