Two fractions $\frac{p}{q}$, $\frac{p'}{q'}$ are said to be a Farey Pair if $pq'-p'q=\pm1$. Let $\frac{p}{q} < \frac{p'}{q'}$ be a Farey Pair, then $$ f:\left[\frac{0}{1}, \frac{1}{1}\right] \cap \mathbb{Q} \to \left[\frac{p}{q}, \frac{p'}{q'}\right] \cap \mathbb{Q} $$ defined by $$ f\left(\frac{u}{v}\right) = \frac{(p'-p)u+pv}{(q'-q)u+qv} $$ is a bijection. Why is that?
From here, pg. 49 - 50.
The plan of the proof:
Remark There are more or less two ways to prove that a given function $f$ is a bijection.
You can do it by solving the equation $y=f(x)$ for $x$. If you find the unique solution in the domain of $f$ for any $y$ from the codomain, you get both injectivity (uniqueness of solution) and surjectivity (existence of solutions). Moreover, you find an invere function $g(y)=x$ such that $y=f(x)$.
In this situation it seems important to verify that $f$ is well defined, i.e. the value doesn't depend on the choice of the form the argument is presented and that all the values lie in the codomain.