Why is this proof of an inequality in a DVR valid?

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Let $R$ be a discrete valuation ring. We have a valuation $v$ on the fraction field $K$ of $R$. Let $x,y \in K$ with $v(x)<v(y)$. I want to prove that $v(x+y) = \min(v(x), v(y))$.

So, we have $v(x) = v((x+y)-y) \geq \min(v(x+y),v(y)) \geq \min(v(x),v(y)) = v(x)$.

Questions about the proof:

(1) What justification makes it valid that $\min(v(x+y),v(y)) \geq \min(v(x),v(y))$?

(2) I thought of adding a little details by saying $$\min(v(x+y),v(y)) \geq \min(\min(v(x),v(y)),v(y)) \geq \min(v(x),v(y)),$$ but it seems to me that I am assuming what I want to prove is true in the proof.

I need help for some clarification. Thanks.