Let $P$ be an irreducible ideal in commutative ring $R$. Suppose $ab \in P$, $a \notin P$, and define $A_n = \{b^n x : x \in R\} \cap P$. Then "clearly $A_n \subset A_{n+1}$" says D&F. But CLEARLY it's a descending chain as $bA_n = A_{n+1}$ and $bA_n \subset A_n$. Why do they say CLEARLY!!!!!! AHHHHH
Thanks.

Well, $A_n=\{b^nx:x∈R\}∩P\supseteq \{b^n(bx):x∈R\}∩P=A_{n+1}$, since $bx\in R$ whenever $x\in R$.
The only unclear thing is, why can't they be equal. And this is equivalent to saying, we cannot write $1 = bc$ for some $c\in R$. And this follows since $b\in P, 1\notin P$; since $P$ is an ideal, then $\forall c\in R, P\ni bc \neq 1$.