I saw this from these online notes about differential equations.
$\frac{\mu'(t)}{\mu(t)} = p(t)$
Hopefully you will recognize the left side of this from your Calculus I class as the following derivative.
($\ln\mu(t))' = p(t)$
I don't think I understand why $\frac{\mu'(t)}{\mu(t)} = (\ln\mu(t))'$ is true. Why is this the case? Thank you very much!
It is the chain rule $$(\ln(f(x))'=\frac{1}{f(x)}\cdot f'(x)$$ for $$f(x)>0$$