I'm aware of the theorem which states that $\mathbb{Z}_m \times \mathbb{Z}_n$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_{mn}$ (and thus cyclic) if and only if $\text{gcd}(m,n)=1$.
However, in $G=\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_4$, where $\text{gcd}(2,4)=2$, it seems to me that if we take $(0,0)$ and add to it $(1,1)$ $4$ times (least common multiple of $2,4$) then we return to $(0,0)$. That's what misled me into thinking that $G$ is cyclic.
Could you explain to me why this is a faulty syllogism and provide me with a more practical way to visualize cyclic direct products?
Suppose that $m$ and $n$ are not coprime. Let $d=\text{gcd}(m,n)$ and $$ a=\frac{mn}{d} $$ Then $a$ is a multiple of both $m$ and $n$. Suppose that $(r,s) \in \mathbb{Z}_m \times \mathbb{Z}_n$. We have $$a(r,s)=(ar,as)=(0,0), $$ since $ar$ is a multiple of $m$ and $as$ is a multiple of $n$. Thus, every element of $\mathbb{Z}_m \times \mathbb{Z}_n$ has order at most $a$ which is less than $mn$ and so $\mathbb{Z}_m \times \mathbb{Z}_n$ is not cyclic.