Why the isometry $f$ must be a translation when it satisfies $\text{d}(f(x),x) < K$ for some $K > 0$?

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Let $f$ be an isometry of $\mathbb{R}^n$.

And, let's say $f$ satisfies $ \forall x \in \mathbb{R}^n$, $\text{d}(f(x),x) < K$ for some $K > 0$.

My attemtpt:

Every isometry could be expressed as $t\circ g$ where $t$ is a translation, and $g$ is an orthogonal transformation.

So, let $f(x) = t\circ g (x)$, and see what happens if $g \neq I$.

By assuming $g \neq I$, we can get a line where $g(x)$ and $x$ belongs to.

Now, by $t$, we will get $t(g(x))=g(x)+a$ for some $a \in \mathbb{R}^n$.

I also applied $g$ once again to $g(x)$.

At this point, I tried to draw each point and tried to use the triangle inequality to intuitively see the relationships between points (when $g$ is not identity.) However, I couldn't get any useful information from the drawing. Also, it made me even more confused.

What should I consider for this problem?

Edit:

I've been trying to see what gives me a contradiction by letting $a=0$ as "Moishe Kohan" suggested.

But, I'm still stuck. Using the triangle inequality didn't really help. Drawing also didn't.

However, there's one I found, which is $|a| < K$. I got it from plugging in $x=0$. (I'm not sure if this would be useful though.)

May I have more hints to go further?