First of all, sorry if the question is stupid. I am banging my head to understand that.
As far as I know,
I am trying to understand the following explanation:
On that explanation, the guy does exactly this integral but comes with a negative sign for the natural log...
why?


The variable is $v(t)$, which has a negative sign in the denominator. Use the substitution $u = V - v(t)$.
Also note that $$\int\frac1x\ dx = \begin{cases} \ln(-x) + C_1, & x < 0 \\ \ln x + C_2, & x > 0 \end{cases}$$