Let $x,y>0$, $u,v>1$ be integers. Why is it easier to solve $x^u-y^v=1$ than $x^u-y^v=2$? Is there possible some group behind the first equation which has some nice property that the group made by the second equation has not?
2026-03-25 14:22:39.1774448559
Why the proof of Catalan's conjecture is not easily generalizable?
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