Consider a relation $R$ = {$(a, b), (c, d)$}.
This relation is transitive.
Since transitive pair $(a, b)$ and $(b, c)$ is absent, We cannot prove that this relation is TRANSITIVE or NOT TRANSITIVE.
What we say is that it is transitive "by vacuity“ or "vacuously true".
My questions are:-
- Why did we define vacuous statements as true rather than false?
- Cannot we say that there are not enough facts available to determine the transitivity of the relation? Is it necessary that a relation must be called either TRANSITIVE or NOT TRANSITIVE?
Thanks.
Edit(added 11:27 PM, 23 March 20): I know that the relation in my question is transitive and I also know how. That is not my question. My question is, here we have an if-then statement, $P⇒Q$, (the condition of transitivity), now when the transitive pair (a, b) and (b, c) is absent, P becomes false, then it implies every Q statement. It means that this implies (i) relation is transitive, as well as (ii) relation is not transitive. Then why do we define this type of relation as transitive (vacuously true) rather than not transitive (vacuously false)?
Edit: I am surprised, why this question is marked as duplicate. I saw the mentioned question and observed that they are different. The mentioned question is interested in whether the relation is transitive or not, whereas in my question I have admitted from the beginning that the relation is transitive and questioned the logic behind it. Do you people think they are same?
By definition a relation $R$ is not transitive if we can find pairs $(x,y),(y,z)\in R$ such that $(x,z)\notin R$.
Looking at the relation in your question we observe that such pairs cannot be found.
Conclusion: the relation is not not transitive, or equivalently is transitive.
Edit (concerning your second question):
In logic where "excluded middle" is absent a statement is true or false. Applying that to the statement "$R$ is transitive" we find that this is a true statement ($R$ is transitive) or a false statement ($R$ is not transitive).