In Riemann-Stieltjes integral,
$ \int_{0}^{\infty} f(x) w(x)dx$
why the weight function should be nontrivial when the interval is $[0,\infty)$?
2026-03-26 09:48:29.1774518509
Why the weight function should be nonzero when the interval is $[0,\infty)$?
38 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in STIELTJES-INTEGRAL
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