Why this corollary force ${\rm Aut}(H)=1$, where $H$ isomorphic to $\Bbb Z_2$

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This is on Dummit and Foote P134.

If $H\cong\Bbb Z_2$, then since $H$ has unique elements of orders $1$ and $2$, corollary 14 forces ${\rm Aut}(H)=1$.

Corollary 14: If $K$ is any subgroup of group $G$ and $g\in G$, then $K\cong gKg^{-1}$. Conjugate elements and conjugate subgroups have the same order.

I can see since ${\rm Aut}(\Bbb Z_2)$ has only trivial automorphism, and $H\cong\Bbb Z_2$, so ${\rm Aut}(H)=1$.

But I can not see how corollary 14 showed that, since to me, corollary 14 only showed that the conjugation is trivial, and didn't show that ${\rm Aut}(H)$ is trivial.

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