I have tried to show that :$ \lim_{n\to \infty } n (\frac{1+i}{2})^n=0$ with $i$ is unit imaginary part , I only guess that is 0 because I have $0<|\frac{1+i}{2}|<1$ then limit should be $0$ , but i'm note care about that !!!
2026-03-28 17:40:25.1774719625
Why this :$ \lim_{n\to \infty } n (\frac{1+i}{2})^n=0$?
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Note that if $a_n$ is a sequence of complex numbers $\lim \ a_n = 0 $ iff $\lim \ |a_n| = 0 $ where |.| is the modulus.
$|\frac{1+i}2| = \sqrt{ \frac 14 + \frac 14} = \frac 1 {\sqrt 2} <1 $
$|\frac{1+i}2| = \frac 1 {\sqrt 2} e^{\frac{i\pi}4 }$
$|na_n| = n(\frac 1 {\sqrt 2})^n $ which converge to $0$. Indeed, $ \forall r<1, \ \lim(n r^n) = 0 $
Therefore,
$ \lim \ na_n = 0$