I was reading a proof, which the author split it into three parts. I didn't quite understand it when I first read it. And now I'm wondering how the author came up with the proof.
It seems like it's using the fact of (b) when defining the function $\textsf{T}$.
Can it be proved like this?:
Let $x\in\textsf{V}$, and $\textsf{T}(v_i)=w_i$ for $i=1,2,\dots,n$. Define $\textsf{T}:\textsf{V}\to\textsf{W}$ by $$\textsf{T}(x)=\sum^{n}_{i=1}a_i\textsf{T}(v_i).$$
Then I just have to prove that if I have another linear function $\textsf{U}$ such that $\textsf{U}(v_i)=w_i$ for $i=1,2,\dots,n$ then they're identical.
So can I prove it like this? And how can I practice this type of proof?
Pictures part:



The author proves three properties (linearity, correct values at the $v_i$, uniqueness) because each of these properties is part of the claim.
Before you can say "another linear function" you better prove that your $T$ is linear. Before you say "another ... such that $U(v_i)=w_i$", you better prove that $T(v_i)=w_i$. Both these steops are done in parts a) and b) of the quoted proof. After that, indeed, all you have to show is uniqueness (as in part c).