Why to include set inclusion in the definition of continuation of well ordered sets?

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In his Naïve Set Theory, Halmos defines, in Section 17, Well Ordering, the following:

We shall say that a well ordered set $A$ is a continuation of a well ordered set $B$, if, in the first place, $B$ is a subset of $A$, if, in fact, $B$ is an initial segment of $A$, and if, finally, the ordering of the elements in $B$ is the same as their ordering in $A$.

In Section 14, Order, he defines initial segments as following:

If $X$ is a partially ordered set, and if $a\in X$, the set $\{x\in X : x < a\}$ is the initial segment determined by $a$; we shall usually denote if by $s(a)$.

Question: If I understand correctly, then the second condition means that $B$ is the set of all strict predecessors of some $x$ in $A$. Then doesn't this condition imply the first one, namely that $B\subseteq A$?


For anyone else who might get confused (as I did) by Henno's answer below, the initial segments are not just sets, but are partially ordered sets having the partial order inherited from the parent set. (At least that's what Henno assumes.)

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If we just know $A \subseteq B$, the orders on $A$ and $B$ could be unrelated, so we strengthen it by saying that $B=s(a)$ for some $a \in A$ which also tells us implicitly that $x < y$ means the same whether we are in $B$ or the larger $A$. So it does imply it but the first sentence "sets the scene" for your mind, as it were. It's not meant to be irredudant.