Why $x\longmapsto \mathrm{sgn}(x)$ not in $W^{1,p}(\mathbb R)$ for all $p\in [1,+\infty ]?$ Indeed,
$$\int_{-1}^1 sgn(x)\varphi'(x)\mathrm d x=\int (1_{(0,\infty ]}(x)-1_{(-\infty ,0)}(x))\varphi'(x)\mathrm d x=\int(x1_{(0,\infty )}(x)-x1_{(-\infty ,0)}(x))\varphi (x),$$
and thus, for example $-(x1_{(0,\infty )}(x)-x1_{(-\infty ,0)}(x))$ is the weak derivativ of $x\longmapsto \mathrm{sgn}(x)$, no ?
$\text{sgn}(x)$ is not in $L^p({\mathbb{R}})$, hence not in $W^{1, p}({\mathbb R})$ (when $p<+\infty$). Also, $\text{sgn}(x)$ is the derivative of $|x|$ in the distribution sense, but the derivative of $\text{sgn}(x)$ is $2\,\delta_0$, not a $L^p({\mathbb R})$ function (even for $p=+\infty$).
When $p=\infty$, you can take a test function $\psi(x)$ such that $\psi(0)\ne 0$, and the sequence $\phi_n(x) = n\psi(n x)$. A change of variable shows that $$\|\phi_n\|_{L^1} = \|\psi\|_{L^1}\qquad\text{and}\qquad-\int\text{sgn}(x)\phi_n'(x)d x = 2 n \psi(0)$$ If $\text{sgn}(x)$ was in $W^{1,\infty}$, the integral would be bounded by $C\|\text{sgn}(x)\|_{W^{1,\infty}} \|\phi_n\|_{L^1}$.