apologize in advance if this is a duplicate, but I found a lot questions related to this but none answering this specific question.
My logic is: let's consider division the opposite of multiplication. So if I have
$\dfrac xy = z$. then that means that
$z * y = x$
I understand that when $y = 0$ there can be so such $z$ that would make the equation true for $x$ if $x$ is not zero. But if both $x$ AND $y =0$, then there is literally an infinite amount of numbers that can be $z$. e.g
$1 * 0 = 0$
$2 * 0 = 0$
$3 * 0 = 0$
$4 * 0 = 0$
So again, why is this undefined instead of infinity.
(s/n: after typing out this question I realize it may be my misconception of the true definition of infinity but alas I'm deciding to post this anyway)
That's the whole point: if you were to say $0/0=1$ since $1×0=0$ then by the same logic we can say $0/0=2$ but then we would have to make $1=2$ (or any other number) which is absolute nonsense so the only logical option is to say that it is undefined.
Edit: If you introduce $\infty$ into our number system then you would also have to define what $\infty × 0$ is (should it be 0 or $\infty$ or something else?) and you run into more trouble.