I know that Wilson's theorem states that a number n is prime iff
(n - 1)! congruent to -1 (mod n)
However, since
(n - 1) congruent to -1 (mod n)
Why isn't the theorem simplified to the following condition?
(n - 2)! congruent to 1 (mod n)
It is indeed true that $n\ge 2$ is prime if and only if $(n-2)!\equiv 1\pmod n$.
"Why isn't the theorem simplified to this condition?": why should it? It looks basically the same to me.