Using sandwich theorem, I can prove that
$\lim_{n\to\infty}\Big((\frac{1}{n})^n+(\frac{2}{n})^n+...+(\frac{n}{n})^n\Big)^{\frac{1}{n}}=1$
But I am curious, is there any way to solve it without the squeeze theorem? If the answer is positive, could you help me to find it?
For any $n\in\mathbb{N}$ the sum $$ \sum_{k=1}^{N} k^n $$ is a polynomial in $N$ with degree $n+1$ and leading term $\frac{N^{n+1}}{n+1}$, as a consequence of the hockey stick identity. In particular $$ \sum_{k=1}^{n}\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)^n =\frac{n}{n+1}+o\left(1\right) $$ as $n\to +\infty$, which can be proved through Riemann sums too.
The claim is a straightforward consequence.