$x^2=4 \implies x=2\tag1$ $x^2=4 \implies \exists x{=}2(x^2=4)\tag2$
The first proposition is false, since it is logically equivalent to $x\neq2 \implies x^2\neq4$ which is obviously false.
It seems that the second proposition is also true. How can we prove it?
The proposition $\exists x=2(x^2=4)$ is short for $$ \exists x(x=2 \wedge x^2=4)$$
Thus, the second proposition is true. (The '$\wedge$' symbol means "and".)