Let $e_i$ denote the sequence whose $i$th term is 1 and rest all are zero. Then $x= lim_{i \to \infty}e_i$ is a sequence which is not convergent. So $x\notin c_0$ and so $x\notin l_p$ because $l_p\subset c_0$. Then this $x$ can't be a member of the Schauder basis for $c_0$ or $l_p$, then why {$e_i$}$_{i=1}^\infty$ is a Schauder basis for $C_0$ or $l_p$?
($c_0$ is the set of sequences converging to $0$ and is equipped with supremum norm, $l_p=${$(x_n):x_n\in R,\sum_{n=1}^\infty|x_n|^p<\infty $} equipped with the norm $||(x_n)||_p=$$[\sum_{n=1}^\infty|x_n|^p]^{1/p}$ )
First of all $x$ is not a sequence at all, it doesn't exist. The sequence $\{e_i\}$ is not convergent so $\lim e_i$ doesn't make any sense. So how can you talk about $x$ being a member or not of some set? This is illogical.
Secondly recall the definition of a Schauder basis:
Note that it doesn't mean that for every sequence of scalars the sum above produces a vector from $V$. Generally this is not true.
And finally $\{e_i\}$ is a Schauder basis for $c_0$ or $l^p$, well, simply because it has been proven. I'm pretty sure you will find a proof in some book on functional analysis.