I have a question about a closed set in Zariski topology. I might be overlooking something easy, but I’m stuck.
Let $A$ be a closed set in $\mathbb{A}_F^1$ where $F$ is a field of characteristic zero and $\mathbb{Z} \subset A$. How does it follow that $A= \mathbb{A}_F^1$?
Thanks in advance.
Every polynomial vanishing on each point in $\Bbb Z$ is identically zero, since a non-zero polynomial has only finitely many zeros. The Zariski closure of a subset $A$ is the set of common zeroes of all polynomials which vanish on $A$, so if $\Bbb Z\subset A$, the Zariski closure of $A$ is all of $\Bbb A^1$.