Is this expression generally true?
$$(1−x^n) = (1−x)(1 + x + \cdots + x^{n−1})$$
The closest Identity I could find in "Mathematical Handbook of Formulas and Tables", Schaum's Outline is:
$$x^{2n+1} - y^{2n+1} = (x-y)(x^{2n} +x^{2n-1}y + x^{2n+2}y^2 + \cdots +y^{2n})$$
Which I could almost believe is the same thing if I set x=1.
$$1 - y^{2n+1} = (1-y)(1 +y + y^2 + \cdots + y^{2n})$$
let $N=2n+1$
$$1 - y^N = (1-y)(1 +y + y^2 + \cdots + y^{N-1})$$
But doesn't this restrict N to be an odd number? I was just asking because i saw this identity being used in a case where N could be an even or odd number, which made me think its generally true. I'm just not sure how to prove it.
Of course it is always true just multiply
$$(1−x)(1 + x + \cdots + x^{n−1}) =$$
$$= 1 + x + \cdots + x^{n−1}-x(1 + x + \cdots + x^{n−1})=$$
$$=1\color{red}{ + x + \cdots + x^{n−1}- x-x^2 - \cdots - x^{n−1}}-x^n=1-x^n$$