[(A⇒ B∨C)] ⇒ [A⇒(¬B⇒C)] ⇒[(A⇒¬B)⇒(A⇒C)] ⇒ [¬(A⇒¬B)∨(A⇒C)]⇒[(A∧B)∨(A⇒C)]
[(A⇒B)∨(A⇒C)] is equivalent to A⇒(B∨C).
Can I prove [(A∧B)∨(A⇒C)] ⇒ [A⇒(B V C)]? or is there problem in the proof above
Please don't use truth table to prove. But only deduction rules. A∨B by definition ¬A⇒B Deduction rules:
1) A⇒(B⇒ A)
2) [A⇒(B⇒C)]⇒[(A⇒B)⇒(A⇒C)]
3) [A⇒B]⇒ [¬B⇒¬A]
For the part:
we first replace $\lor$ and $\land$ with their definition in terms of $\lnot$ and $⇒$:
Applying them to the above formula, we get:
In addition, we assume that we have available the Deduction Th, that is provable (together with $A ⇒ A$) from A1) and A2) only.
1) $[(A⇒¬B)⇒(A⇒C)]$ --- assumed [a]
2) $A$ --- assumed [b]
3) $¬B$ --- assumed [c]
4) $¬B⇒(A⇒¬B)$ --- axiom A1)
5) $A⇒¬B$ --- from 3) and 4) by Modus Ponens
6) $A⇒C$ --- from 1) and 5) by Modus Ponens
7) $C$ --- from 2) and 6) by Modus Ponens
8) $¬B⇒C$ --- from 3) and 7) by Deduction Th, discharging [c]
9) $A ⇒(¬B⇒C)$ --- from 2) and 8) by Deduction Th, discharging [b]