I am struggling some math problems.
Fighting some problems, I find out a rule.
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Could you please see the table below?
HERE is my question!
I (may) found out the inequality
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$$\binom {2n}{k} + \binom {2n}{n-k} \ < \ \binom{2n}{n} + \binom{2n}{0} \ \ \text{for} \ \ k<n \ \ \cdots(1)$$
or
$$\binom {2n}{k} + \binom {2n}{n-k} \ < \ \binom{2n}{l} + \binom{2n}{n-l} \ \ \text{for} \ \ k<l \le n \ \ \cdots(2)$$
$$\text{Actually (2) implies (1)}$$ $$$$
- Is these inequality exist already?
- Is these inequality true, INTUITIVELY?
- Is these inequality TRUE?
- If these are right, then how can I proof?
$$$$ (I wanna believe these are true, and then these will proof simply...)
Thank you for your attention to this matter.
