A basic calculation shows: $$ \int_{0}^{1} x^l e^{-\lambda(1-x)} dx = \frac{l!}{(-\lambda)^{l+1}} \left( \sum\limits_{j=l+1}^{\infty} \frac{(-\lambda)^j}{j!}\right) $$ where $\lambda$ is a constant.
I have: $$ \int_{0}^{1} x^l e^{-\lambda(1-x)} dx = e^{-\lambda} \int_{0}^{1} x^l e^{\lambda x} dx = \frac{e^{-\lambda}}{\lambda^{l+1}} \int_{0}^{1} (\lambda x)^l e^{{\lambda x}} d(\lambda x) $$
$$ =\frac{e^{-\lambda}}{\lambda^{l+1}} \left[ \left( \sum\limits_{j=0}^{l}(-1)^j \frac{l!}{(l-j)!} (\lambda x)^{l-j} \right) e^{\lambda x}\right]_{0}^{1} $$
I can't obtain the equation. Can someone give me some suggestion to prove it? Thank you.
My first instinct looking at the expression was to turn it into Gamma density, so that's what I did
$$\int_0^1x^le^{-\lambda{(1-x)}}dx=e^{-\lambda}\frac{\Gamma(l+1)}{(-\lambda)^{l+1}}\int_0^1\frac{1}{\Gamma(l+1)}(-\lambda)^{l+1}x^{(l+1)-1}e^{-(-\lambda) x}dx$$
Then I realized there isn't a closed form for the cdf. Thankfully, Wikipedia came to the rescue with the following:
We plug in $x=1, \alpha=l+1, \beta=(-\lambda)$ to get
$$e^{-\lambda}\frac{\Gamma(l+1)}{(-\lambda)^{l+1}}e^{\lambda}\sum_{i=l+1}^{\infty}\frac{(-\lambda)^{i}}{i!}=\frac{l!}{(-\lambda)^{l+1}}\left( \sum_{i=l+1}^{\infty} \frac{(-\lambda)^i}{i!} \right)$$