Let $P(n)$ be a characteristic function of prime numbers, such that
$$ P(n)= \begin{cases} 1, & \small \text{if } n \text{ is prime} \\ 0, & \small \text{otherwise} \end{cases} $$
For instance: $P(n) = \pi(n)-\pi(n-1)$, where $\pi(x)$ is the prime-counting function. Knowing all that, we can evaluate the following identity (conjeture?) discovered by me
$$ \sum_{i=1}^\infty \cfrac{(-1)^{P(i)}}{i^2}= \sum_{i=1}^\infty \cfrac{(-1)^{\pi(i)-\pi(i-1)}}{i^2}=\frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{2}} $$
and it seems to approach (converge to) the Hermite Constant in 3 dimensions. So, obviously the question is: can you prove that sum is true?
Thanks
Expanding on Gerry Myerson's comment; $\zeta(2)=\dfrac{\pi^2}{6}$ and the first $104$ digits of $P(2)=\sum_{p}p^{-2}$ can be found at: http://oeis.org/A085548. We now see that $$\zeta(2)-2P(2)=0.7404392267660955...$$, while $$\dfrac{\pi}{3\sqrt{2}}=0.7404804896930609...$$ So no, you can't prove it because, sadly, it's false.