In this theorem for proving claim (a) why it said that there exist $\epsilon_0>0$ such that $A([0, \epsilon_0]×I)$ is subset of U. Shouldn't we say $[0, \epsilon_0)$ instead of that because this is open in [0,1] , and the proof would be easier?
2026-04-03 14:32:14.1775226734
a consequence that implies from continuity of a function
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