Let $f: \mathbb { R^n } \rightarrow \mathbb { R } ^ { n }$ be continuously differentiable, Satisfying $$ \| f ( x ) - f ( y ) \| \geqslant \| x - y \| , \forall x , y \in \mathbb { R } ^ { n } $$ then how to prove that $f$ is onto.
My work: Consider $f:\mathbb R^n \rightarrow Range(f),$ Then clearly $f$ is bijective from $\mathbb { R } ^ { n }$ onto $Range( f )$ also since $$\left\| f ^ { - 1 } ( x ) -f ^ { - l } ( y ) \right\| \leq \| x - y \|$$ $f ^ { - 1 }: \operatorname { Range } (f) \rightarrow \operatorname {\mathbb R^n }$ Continuous. Thus $Range(f) \subseteq \mathbb { R } ^ { n }$ is homeomorphic to $\mathbb { R } ^ { n }$, is the way is correct? I am not getting idea further.
For suppose $z\in\overline{f(\mathbb{R}^{n})}-f(\mathbb{R}^{n})$, there is a sequence $(w_{n})$ such that $f(w_{n})\rightarrow z$. But then $\|f(w_{n})-f(w_{m})\|\geq\|w_{n}-w_{m}\|$, so $(w_{n})$ is Cauchy and hence convergent, say, $w_{n}\rightarrow w$. Continuity gives $f(w_{n})\rightarrow f(w)$ and hence $z=f(w)\in f(\mathbb{R}^{n})$, a contradiction.
This shows that $f(\mathbb{R}^{n})$ is closed.
We claim that $f(\mathbb{R}^{n})$ is open, for then $f(\mathbb{R}^{n})=\mathbb{R}^{n}$ by the connectedness of $\mathbb{R}^{n}$.
The Jacobian is not singular, see here. Hence Inverse Function Theorem gives you that $f$ is an open map, so $f(\mathbb{R}^{n})$ is open.