I came a cross the following question today at class
If a matrix has $n$ eigenvalues and it is known all of them are different from each other then $A$ is a diagonalizable matrix
to best of my knowledge, if the eigenvalues are different from each other (and let's say you got $n$ of those), you can make $n$ bases vectors using those eigenvalues, but I'd love to see a proper proof :)
cheers
Here's a constructive approach: you know that $$ A v = \lambda v $$ for corresponding eigenvectors $v$ and eigenvalues $\lambda$. Now write $$ S := (v_1, \ldots, v_n) \qquad \text{and} \qquad D := \text{diag}(\lambda_1, \ldots, \lambda_n), $$ i.e. the columns of $S$ are the eigenvectors and $D$ is a diagonal matrix containing the eigenvalues on its diagonal.
As the eigenvectors are linearly independent (verify this if you haven't already, it's a good exercise!) you can invert $S$. Try to prove that $$A = S D S^{-1}.$$
Spoiler: